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But adjacent triads with no common tones are plentiful in <u>all</u>
repertoires! The question is not there, but merely of knowing whether
(and possibly why) earlier theorists did not recognize them as normal
harmonic progressions! I have no clear answer for the "why", but
certainly for the "whether": from Rameau to Schoenberg, Simon Sechter
and Hugo Riemann included, almost all theorists considered them
"abnormal" -- which does not mean "forbidden".<br>
<br>
Nicolas Meeùs<br>
<a class="moz-txt-link-abbreviated" href="mailto:nicolas.meeus@paris-sorbonne.fr">nicolas.meeus@paris-sorbonne.fr</a><br>
<br>
<br>
<br>
Nicole Biamonte a écrit :
<blockquote
cite="mid:ced348e20909121712i241df3f8j6d82055c8c2e4d4f@mail.gmail.com"
type="cite">
<div class="gmail_quote">On Fri, Sep 11, 2009 at 4:37 PM, Ildar
Khannanov <span dir="ltr"><<a moz-do-not-send="true"
href="mailto:solfeggio7@yahoo.com">solfeggio7@yahoo.com</a>></span>
wrote:</div>
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<div class="im">As for supertonic triad as a substitute for
subdominant triad, it does not exist! If we are talking about root
position supertonic triad in major, it is used very rarely because
there is a serious problem connecting it with tonic, and that is a very
serious voice leading problem : there are no common tones indeed and no
purpose of resolution. In minor this chord is an absolute nonsense. </div>
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<div>I don't know the Snoop Dogg song, but adjacent parallel triads
with no common tones are plentiful in the rock repertoire</div>
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