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<font face="Calibri">The French tradition, that of the Paris
Conservatoire, is to write +4 in this case, the + meaning that the
4 is the leading tone (similarly, one would write +6 in second
inversion). This tradition, which is not mine and against which I
am trying to fight in Paris, has several drawbacks, one of them
being that the French use labels that hardly anyone else
understands.<br>
I wondered about the origin of this figuring, without
performing a thorough research. It certainly goes back to Catel's
treatise, and perhaps earlier. The + sign is in origin merely a
stylized #. Catel makes use of it (and of the barred 5) with the
specific (although unstated) intention of specially labeling
dominant seventh chords, the ones that he considers "natural", all
positions of which always have either a + or a barred 5 (from
fundamental position to third inversion: +3; 6/5barred; +6, +4;
this is tricky, because 4/3 becomes +6, 2 or 4/2 becomes +4).
Applied dominants are labeled in the same way, with the other
perverse effect that French students see modulations everywhere
(as the French did since François Campion in 1716: <i>tout diese
extraordinaire fait sortir du ton</i>, "any accidental sharp
leads outside the tonality").<br>
Labeling third-inversion dominants as V4/2 may result from an
attempt to reconcile the two systems. In this respect, I'd be
pleased to know how Nadia Boulanger labeled chords, if anyone on
this list knows (it has been discussed here some time ago that her
teaching of harmony followed the tradition of the Conservatoire,
but her ciphering was not specifically discussed, that I
remember).<br>
<br>
My own view about the labeling of seventh chords is that it should
indicate the dissonant interval: (8)/7, 6/5, 4/3, 2/(0), the 8 and
0 being omitted as redundant with the written bass, of course;
this is what Dimitar describes, with a slightly different
explanation. The main difference with the French system is that it
does not specifically indicate <u>dominant</u> sevenths, which
may be viewed (by the French) as a shortcoming, or (by the others)
as an advantage.<br>
<br>
</font>Nicolas Meeùs<br>
Université Paris-Sorbonne<br>
<br>
<br>
Le 9/02/2012 04:50, Ninov, Dimitar N a écrit :
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cite="mid:863F27D9B562F4429B340BA70B1F0169010A557C8CF9@BOBCATMAIL3.matrix.txstate.edu"
type="cite">
<pre wrap="">Dear Colleagues,
My students were asking me why I wrote V2 instead of V4/2. I guess I had to ask them why they wrote V4/2 instead of V2. This is not a big deal, of course, but I wanted to bring to your attention the fact that number 4 is irrelevant to the logic of derivation of the abbreviated labels of seventh chords.
The abbreviated labels are derived by two intervals: 1) the interval between the bass and the root on the one hand, and 2) the interval between the bass and the seventh on the other. Thus in root position the only number is 7, because the interval between the bass and the root is unison; in first inversion we have 6-5; in second inversion 4-3, and in third inversion the only number is 2, because the interval between the bass and the seventh is unison.
Why 4? It shows the interval between the bass and the third of the seventh chord, which does not have to be shown unless we work in minor and use only figured bass with no Roman numerals.
When I flip through the pages of some European and older American books of harmony (as well as some relatively new) the above explanation is provided. Author such as Piston, Tischler, Schoenberg, Horvitt, Cook, and all Russian theorists use 2 instead of 4/2, but the massive tendency in the US is to write 4-2. Is this tradition based on ignoring the logic of derivation, or is there something special that stands behind this label?
I would appreciate any ideas in this regard.
Best wishes,
Dimitar
Dr. Dimitar Ninov, Lecturer
School of Music
Texas State University
601 University Drive
San Marcos, Texas 78666
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