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<font face="Calibri">Ninov,<br>
<br>
I can reassure you: I never called a supermarket "un Mall", and I
never met a music theorist (nor anybody, for that matter) doing so
around here. We use "un supermarché" (or at times, especially in
Belgium, "un shopping centre", an obvious Anglicism). Some say "un
shouk", but the meaning is not exactly the same – note that
department stores at times are called "Bazar" or "Bazaar".
Schenker may have said "ein Kaufhaus", or </font><font
face="Calibri"> "ein Geschäft", </font><font face="Calibri">or
possibly "ayn geve'lb"</font><font size="2"></font>, but the
meaning is not exactly the same either.<br>
<br>
Note that the word "Mall" is English in origin and has been used as
early as 1644, in John Evelyn's diary, in the meaning of "a public
walk", from the name of the game, "pall-mall", Fr. "paillemaille",
from It. "pallamaglio". I think to know that Canadian French still
has "un mail" to describe a large avenue with trees. The usage of
"Mall" to denote a commercial gallery does not seem to predate the
second half of the 20th century (perhaps beginning with the Bergen
Mall, New Jersey, in 1957). As they say, "when you've seen a shop,
you've seen a mall".<br>
<br>
In any case, I don't feel that the purity of the concept is
threatened in Europe: be reassured.<br>
<br>
Nicolas Meeùs<br>
Université Paris-Sorbonne<br>
<font face="Calibri"><br>
<br>
<br>
</font><br>
Le 16/05/2012 04:19, Ninov, Dimitar N a écrit :
<blockquote
cite="mid:863F27D9B562F4429B340BA70B1F01690122F739E8AC@BOBCATMAIL3.matrix.txstate.edu"
type="cite">
<pre wrap="">Dear Colleagues,
Although I opened a big polemic on the topic "Subdominant versus Predominant" nearly three months ago, and this topic has now been resumed, I cannot fight the fact that some North American theorists have decided to call the subdominant a "predominant". If this is what they feel, no one can convince them that it is wrong, and my appeal to relate harmonic functions to the tonal center rather to the dominant function, are in vain.
But I have a question. While the term "predominant" has been invented by American followers of Schenker, it has not been popular in Europe. Why, then, some European theorists started repeating it, as if they have grown up with it in the United States? It is like calling a Department store or a supermarket a "Mall" only because they call it so in the United States. Believe me, in this regard I criticize my Bulgarian countrymen, because they really started calling their supermarkets "Malls"! I am ashamed of this parrot-like adoption of foreign terms in Bulgaria, but I think that is an inferiority complex of the weak, who always have the need to be under someone's umbrella - whether it be the Soviet Union, or The United States.
Well, if I, as a Bulgarian, have the decency to criticize the mentality of a large group of my countrymen, why should I abstain from criticizing other European citizens for nodding and reiterating concepts and terminology that does not stem from a solid tradition on their soil?
To eliminate further confusion, and to rehabilitate Bulgarian teachers of harmony, I will add that, if they call the supermarket a "Mall", they still keep calling the old subdominant with its genuine name. The cadential six-four, which is literally depended on the dominant, and announces its arrival in an unprecedented manner, is the real bearer of the term "pre-dominant".
Thank you,
Dimitar
Dr. Dimitar Ninov, Lecturer
School of Music
Texas State University
601 University Drive
San Marcos, Texas 78666
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